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Originally Posted by ctblu40
But there is a possible BOO here because the batter never completed his time at bat per 6.04. He was not put out, nor did he become a runner because he did not fulfill any part of rules 6.08 and 6.09. So if B2 completes B1's time at bat, shouldnt B1 be declared out after a proper appeal? In this case, B2 would now become the proper batter with R2 and R3 and 2 outs.
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No...the umpire's screwed up and "awarded" B1 first...we all know that this is wrong...however, I would argue that BOO can not occur as a result of an umpire improperly awarding a batter first.
Can BOO occur when a batter is "awarded" first on a base-on-balls when only three pitches have been pitched? No. Its a clear mistake by the umpire. At most the count can only be 3-0. The umpire has misapplied the rule for base-on-balls and awarded a batter first base in violation of the rules which require 4 "balls". I don't believe a BOO can now occur. The defense must "protest", which layman would label an "appeal", but it is not (for the reasons set forth in my first post on this thread).
The defense had their shot: protest before the next pitch, play or attempted play. When they failed to do so, B1 was now legally R1 and B2 is now properly at-bat.