Quote:
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Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
Why can we not assume R1 scores?
When a dead ball is ruled due to an obstructed runner being put out, the appropriate action has been to advance any other runners that are more than halfway to the next base and return those who are not.
Is that not an equal assumption as being presently discussed?
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I think not. When a dead ball happens by rule, there is a rule to address it. The cause of the dead ball is a misplay by the defense, and that has to be a consideration when figuring out how to proceed.
When a dead ball happens in error, there is no party to consider at fault. At any time, there is the possibility that the fielder will shift gears and still make a play at home; the OP simply states "R1 is running to home", and really doesn't indicate if there was time to make a play, still. Since R1 isn't forced, we don't know what kind of jump got off the base. And, the defense hasn't erred, where we might favor the offense; the error is the umpire's.
Not saying that is the definitive answer; it's my rationale.