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there is no immediate dead ball on the balk...
Anyway, I was wondering if my ruling was correct.
Does anyone know the passage in the rulebook (I'm checking the ones on mlb.com) with a runner trying to steal when there is a catcher's interference?
Because if my feeling is wrong (runner can stay on 3rd), then he would be at 2nd, therefore not one base further, so I would have enforced the balk and got the Runner to 3rd and the batter to hit with the count prior to the balk.
thx
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