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Originally Posted by Saltydog
I thought the reason behind this ruling was to penalize the offense if they 'interfered' with the ball while defense had a chance to play it? In the NCAA case stated, and assuming it was a well hit ball, it appears that neither F3 nor F4, (though rudgment regarding as to IF F4 would have), met the '"through the legs of or within the immediate reach of" the fielder criteria. Unless, F9 was really on his toes, it seems R1 clearly would have reached 2B and R3 home. To call R1 out and send R3 back seems to give an advantage to the defense that wasn't there before. I'm looking primarily at reason and rationale here, vice rule interpretation.
On a separate note; Dave, your use of 'immediate reach' here; is this the standard 'step and grab'?
SD
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That's correct.
Now if you really want to confuse the issue involve the pitcher getting hit by the batted ball first and go from there, (but that's another thread)
Thanks
DAvid