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Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Yes, he's traveled but the Fed differentiates between dropping the ball (intentionally) and fumbling it (unintentionally). That's why tmp44's play is not like any case book play, as it's a fumble, not an intentional release of the ball.
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Yup, one's covered and the other one isn't. I realize that by inference you certainly can make a case for legitimizing the fumble as being legal. I'd like to see a definitive ruling though that covers both situations equally; a ruling that would take some of the "judgement" out of the call- re: fumble vs. deliberate drop. Anything to make the call easier to make and cut down arguments...