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Originally Posted by bellnier
I know it's a HTBT, but I've got a slight brain cramp on this one...unless F3 is blocking the base (which was not suggested in the original post) B1 would have safely reached 1st on a shot to left field. So why is (s)he protected only to 1B? Is it because F3 is positioned between the plate and 1B? Is it because you don't really KNOW if B1 would have attempted to go to 2B? Let's say it's the latter reason...if the ball rolls all the way to the fence and it's safe to assume B1 would attempt 2B, would you protect her to that base? Thanks (from a coach).
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Speaking ASA, the judgment the umpire has to make is a parallel-universe question...
Suppose the obstruction had not happened. What base would the runner have achieved?
The answer to that question is the base to which the umpire protects the runner, and is the base the umpire will award the runner at the end of the play (if necessary).
Also, the runner is protected by rule between the two bases where the obstruction occurred. So, in the scenario presented, the runner is also protected between 1B and 2B.
But, if put out between those bases, the awarded base is the answer to the first question (in this case, 1B).