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hey guys,
I'm glad that i am not the only one to question this ruling. thanks for the debate. i'm glad we can see some posting that stays focused on a rules question and does not deteriorate into bashing.
for whatever it is worth, i agree that the play where the runner is hit in the area that F6 has just vacated is completely different.
from the eofficial question there is no way that you could argue the F4 has a chance to make a play - "second baseman is squeezing the middle of the infield and has no play on the ball", nor can you determine exactly where R1 is when he is hit. the question states that R1 "started from a position behind the first baseman" it states that "F3 dives to his right on a batted ground ball but cannot make the play" it doesn't say that the ball was out of his reach or several feet to his right. the ball could have bounced over or under his glove when he dove. if the runner started out right behind the first baseman the logical place for him to be is still practically, if not literally right behind him as he is also moving to his right on the play.
bad question.
does anyone have a contact at eofficials.com that could help us settle this debate.
thanks again.
G
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