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Originally Posted by CoachJM
Gentlemen,
The eofficial's question is somewhat ambiguous, because it never says how "close" the ball was to the diving F3 - only that he "..cannot make the play". It also is not clear as to whether the runner was "immediately" behind the F3 at the time he was struck by the fair batted ball.
However, the "point" of the question, as I read it, is that the runner is NOT exempt from interference because he is "farther away from home plate than the infielder". He is only exempt if he is immediately back of the infielder and the ball goes through or by that infielder.
From the MLBUM we have:
This is entirely consistent with the text of the rules (most clearly stated in 5.09(f)) and what J/R and JEA say is the proper way to rule. If you choose to rule in a way that is contrary to what the MLBUM, JEA, & J/R say, you would be wrong. If you do it in a game where I am coaching (and it disadvantages my team) I will protest in a heartbeat.
JM
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JM:
These are two entirely different situations.
One has the infielder making an attempt to field the ball, diving to his right. The other situation has the ball hit toward where F6 would have normally been, if he hadn't moved in for the bunt, but no infielder was there to attempt to field the ball.
Situations are as different as night and day.
Bring the protest on!