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Old Tue Jun 20, 2006, 11:22am
UmpJM UmpJM is offline
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Cool

TwoBits,

Under the "old" 6.02(c), the pitcher was, in fact, required to throw a pitch.

I honestly don't know whether he is required to do so under "new" 6.02(c), but with the new provision that the ball is "dead", it would make sense to me that there is no reason why he would need to and the umpire could simply "declare" a strike, a la FED, without the pitcher actually delivering a pitch.

JMO.

JM

Edited to add: I see that SD Steve has clarified the question while I was composing my speculative reply. Never mind.

Last edited by UmpJM; Tue Jun 20, 2006 at 11:26am.
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