Quote:
|
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve
I used to interpret that way, too; that the issue should be the location of the ball when and where the touching occurs, same as fair versus foul, and in the running lane versus out of the running lane. Seemed the intent of the rule, and consistent.
Then, someone pointed out that the actual wording of the definition of a foul ball (F) states "Touches the batter ... while the batter is within the batter's box." With that language, it seems to make the position of the ball or the touching moot. After all, wouldn't a rule intending to say what you and I believe it to mean say "touches the batter .... while the ball is located in or over the batter's box"?
|
Steve,
If the ball hits the batter's foot in the box, is that batter not in the box? Sort of like calling a runner out for missing 2B when the runner is standing on top of 2B. Then there is the standard question of the other foot being in the air. The question is when is the batter considered to have left the batter's box for the purpose of any violations based on this information.
When dealing with the 3' lane on a play at first, do we not rule based on what part of the body causes the interference and whether it is outside the lane as opposed to the location of both feet?
The interpretation I have always worked by was as I noted. I've never heard any other interpretation to the contrary, so I'll stick with what I've been told.