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Old Mon Jun 05, 2006, 02:26am
UmpJM UmpJM is offline
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Question

JRutledge,

In each of my posts on this thread, I have acknowledged that there is a significant element of judgement in ruling on this (or similar) situations.

You seem to suggest (if I'm reading your posts correctly) that if the runner were to proceed directly to his base without sliding, and altered the pivot man's play - let's say by being hit by his throw to 1B - you would NOT call a violation of the FPSR. For the purpose of illustrating the point, let's assume that the forced runner was within a "body's length" of his forced to base at the time the pivot man released the throw. The pivot man was making a legitimate effort to retire the BR at 1B. The game is being played under FED (or NCAA, for that matter) rules.

If you do NOT call the R1 and the BR out, I believe you are completely ignoring the FPSR and inappropriately applying OBR criteria in ruling on the play. Why do you think differently?

JM
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