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Tom,
Yes, I saw the response, but do not understand how R2 would be in voilaton of LBR if R2 started to return to 1st.
Here is my thinking about the situation. With the situation as described, R2 is liable to be put out if tagged, because R2 is not legally occupying a base. Since R2 is not legally occupying a base, R2 is technically off base between 1st and 2nd when the ball is received by F1 in the circle and LBR goes into effect. Why would the LBR not be applied as if R2 is off base between 1st and 2nd in this situation?
Thanks
GaryB
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