yankeesfan,
In terms of the proper mechanic under OBR rules, I believe that Tim has given you a good description of the proper mechanic.
This is what the MLBUM says:
Quote:
7.5 BALK REGULATIONS
A balk shall be called audibly ("Balk!" or "That's a balk!") and by pointing laterally at the pitcher. However, the ball is not dead automatically when this call is made. The ball becomes dead only when the umpire calls "Time" following the call of balk, and the call of "Time" is to be made only when play stops (i.e., when it is apparent that all runners including the batter runner
will not advance one base).
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As Tim suggests, if the pitcher delivers a pitch following the Balk call, you leave the ball live. The same is true if you balk a pitcher on a pick-off move and he makes a "throw" (as opposed to a pitch).
I also agree with Tim that what you described is
not a balk. While the pitcher certainly could have balked while making this move, you didn't describe anything that is a balk.
I believe the most relevant rule is:
Quote:
8.05
If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_ ...(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play;...
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If I understand you correctly, 2B was unoccupied at the time of the move and the R1 was attempting to steal 2B (in your judgement as the umpire). If that is correct, per 8.05(d), it is not a balk for the "in contact" pitcher to make a throw to 2B because he is legitimately doing so "...for the purpose of making a play...".
There are any number of things the pitcher might have done which would be legitimately balked in this situation.
For example, if the pitcher initiated a pick-off move to 1B, and then, seeing the runner had already committed to his attempt at 2B, "aborted" that move and threw to 2B, that would certainly be properly balked. On the other hand, if his move to 2B was smooth/continuous, he is perfectly legal. (And I, for one, am impressed, I might add.)
Unless, of course, you (as the umpire) judged that the R1 was only
feinting an attempt to advance. Then his move/throw to 2B would be a balk, per 8.05(d).
Make sense?
JM