[BlueLawyer]

Not to pile on, but . . .

I would not have balked him because the runner still "occupied" second base. One of the rules basics I was taught is that a runner owns a base until he legally owns the next one. Example: One out, R1, 1-2 count on the batter. R1 takes off to steal on the pitch. Batter swings and misses at a pitch in the dirt. R1 is now standing on second base, and the batter, seeing the third strike in the dirt, now takes off for first. I calmly say, "you're out." If he gets to the first base bag with a smile on his face, I then yell, "The batter is out! First base was occupied at the time of the pitch!" The batter's out because when the pitcher delivered the ball, R1 still occupied first base, even if R1 was two inches from second.

I also would not have balked him because he was throwing to a bag to make a play. Let's say your runner was at first and he took off. If your pitcher had thrown (otherwise legally) to first, would you have balked him? It's a common play where the runner leans, then goes, then the pitcher throws to first. No balk- just baseball.

Strikes and outs!