Wed May 10, 2006, 10:33am
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Official Forum Member
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Join Date: Dec 2003
Location: Little Elm, TX (NW Dallas)
Posts: 4,047
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by rwest
Here's the scenario....
R1 on 1B. B1 hits a slow roller up first base. F3 move's in front of R1. F1 is not moving toward the ball, neither is F2. Should they be? Yes, but lets just say they don't. F3 is standing in R1's way. But the ball never makes it to her. It stops well short. In my opinion, F3 is not in the act of fielding even though she reacted when the ball was hit. She had no reasonable expectation of fielding the ball. I've got obstruction. That's what I mean by "no reasonable right to be there". Suppose the ball was hit down third base line instead and F3 did the same thing. Does F3 have the right to stand in the way of R1? No. However, she did react to the ball. You'd have obstruction right? So why proctect F3 in the above scenario, when she had no reasonable expectation to field the ball?
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Sounds like a great topic for a separate post, as I'd like to respond, but don't want to confuse the issue I was dealing with last night. 
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson
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