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Originally Posted by Dakota
I don't understand, since to me this reads like a simple 6-3 double play. What am I missing?
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If the B-R being put out on the play removes all force plays, then R1 needed to be tagged for the out to stand. Otherwise it is a mis-applicaition of POE#1.
I am sure most will think I am being silly, but if the force is removed after the fact, then why wouldn't an appeal overturn the "force" out if the runner wasn't tagged.