[mcrowder]

A question seemed to be deleted from yesterday. The OP was something like:

Bases loaded, 1 out. Hit to the outfield, R1 on 3rd scores, R2 misses touching home. R3 on first scores. BR thrown out for the 2nd out after passing 2nd base. R2 is then appealled for the third out.

I had answered (as had a couple others) that only 1 run scores (R3), as the run by R1 was nullified when R2, a preceding runner, was appealled for the third out.

Right before I left, Irish said R1 and R3 score. 99.9% of the time, when Mike says something that differs from what I say, I immediately assume I'm wrong, and go to the book to see what I missed. However, in this case, I am pretty sure that R3 from 1st doesn't score. I think it's rule 5-5-c, but it could be something else in rule 5, a third exception says something like "No run shall score if a preceding runner is called out for the third out on appeal." (I don't have the book here).

Mike - did I flub this one, and if so, what did ASA mean by the statement I refer to above.