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Originally Posted by ljudge
The 2-yard line, which is the end of the kick.
Question now for everyone. I say PSK applies because R is technically in possession when the down ends (even though K has the ball in his hands). Anyone disagree?
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It initially seems like it shouldn't be a PSK enforcement, but like you say, R is technically in possession and they will have the ball for the next down. I agree that you enforce the clip using PSK.
Roamin Umpire brings up the point I was wondering about - whether an "illegal bat" by K causes an offsetting foul situation (replay the down)? Seems like the Fed might want to look at 6-2-4 and add "illegally" to the phrase??