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Originally Posted by bradfordwilkins
"1st time: violation with a loud verbal warning about contact, loud enough that A1 hears and knows that any contact will be a foul on B1."
But in talking about an end of the game, potentially winning or tying at the buzzer type situation, I think you've gotta get the foul on the first contact.
The new question is what if B1 never leaves to go out of bounds but gets right to the edge without touching the line and continues to move to block A1 from getting in bounds... Also a block, right? So why wouldn't we have the same call out of bounds... Just hypothesizing here.
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B1 has the right to be wherever they wish...inbounds....even up to the boundary. If A1 runs into B1, it
MAY be a block if B1 didn't allow time/distance.
If B1 leaves the court and fouls A1 (who is attempting to get back inbounds after a throwin), I'd have no problem calling the foul....but it must be one that would have been a foul if the same contact were to occur inbounds.