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Originally Posted by mcrowder
If pitcher steps toward third and doesn't throw, he has essentially made himself an infielder. It's not like you're going to let him pitch from here, Right?
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Apparently, FED would not agree with your most logical statement.
There's a rule that states that when the pitcher makes a throw/pitch from in contact with the pitching plate, if the ball should enter dead-ball territory, all runners are awarded ONE base.
Play: R2, no outs. Batter hits a comebacker to the F1. F1 checks R2 then throws to 1st. While making the throw, F1's pivot foot is in contact with the pitching rubber. The throw goes into dead-ball territory. Do you award R2 third or home?
I know this is a completely silly question, but, if you think about it, it's not too far removed from the ruling in the casebook play being discussed.
David Emerling
Memphis, TN