[David Emerling]

I want to discuss a certain casebook play: FED 6.1.5

It says:
With R1 on third base and R2 on first base, F1 steps and feints to third and then steps and throws to first attempting to pick off R2. The throw goes into dead-ball territory. The offensive team's coach wants a balk to be called because the pitcher never threw the ball toward third. RULING: When the pitcher stepped off the pitching plate in his feint to third, he became an infielder. Hence, when his throw goes into dead-ball territory, all runners awarded two bases. R1 gets home and R2 gets third. Had F1 stayed on the pitching plate during his feint to third and his throw to first, all runners would be awarded one base. R1 would get home and R2 would get second. This would not be a balk as F1 made a legal feint and a legal pickoff attempt with no prior motion to pitch.

I want to focus on the base awards.

Everybody knows that if a pitcher makes a pickoff attempt while in contact with the rubber and the ball goes into dead-ball territory, all runners are awarded one base.

If the pitcher steps BACK off the rubber prior to the pickoff, all runners would be awarded two bases should the ball go into dead-ball territory.

Any jump turn that causes the pivot foot to break contact with the rubber is not considered a legal disengagement, therefore, any ball thrown into dead-ball territory will be treated the same as if the pitcher were in contact with the rubber. A one base award. This is very common when a right-handed pitcher makes a quick pickoff attempt at first. It is very common for his right foot to break contact with the rubber. But it's still considered "in contact" for the purpose of applying base awards.

OK - having established this - let's go back to the play in the FED casebook.

This case play is claiming that if the pitcher feints toward 3rd (while in contact with the rubber) and then turns and throws to 1st (while stillin contact) that it is only a one base award if the ball is thrown into dead-ball territory.

I disagree with this ruling.

I think that once the pitcher has stepped toward 3rd with a legal feint ... that is considered an event that eliminates the significance of whether his foot is still on the rubber. In my opinion, after the feint, the pitcher is now considered disengaged, whether on or off the rubber. That event is over. The pitcher is now an infielder.

I claim that ANY throw to 1st, after first faking toward 3rd, that results in the ball going into dead-ball territory should always be a two base award. The fact that the pitcher may still have his pivot foot in contact with the rubber while making the second maneuver is completely irrelevent. The play to first was not a direct play. It was the second play. The pitcher cannot remain a pitcher on a second maneuver. The pitching regulations can only apply to the first maneuver; the throw/feint to 3rd.

Again, this is just an opinion of mine and I am curious what others think.

In a 1st and 3rd situation, have you ever seen a pitcher fake toward third then quickly turn toward 1st to see if he can catch R1 leaning? The pitcher neither throws to 3rd nor 1st. This happens all the time!

Would you rule a balk on the pitcher for failing to complete the throw to 1st if you happened to notice that his foot was still on the rubber?

I wouldn't!

Once the pitcher completes a legal maneuver toward 3rd, whether he throws the ball or feints ... he is now just an infielder. The completion of the maneuver is the equivalent of stepping off the rubber.

Now, if the pitcher remains in contact with the rubber and actually makes a throw to 3rd; if the ball should enter dead-ball territory, that would be a one base award. (Ball thrown from in contact with the rubber)

If he steps off the rubber, throws to 3rd, and the ball goes into dead-ball territory; that would be a two base award.

But once the pitcher completes the maneuver (whether feigning or throwing), and continues with a second maneuver, he is now considered an infielder and no longer engaged with the rubber. Only two-base awards are now possible.

The rules regarding whether the pitcher was in contact with the rubber (for the purposes of awarding only one base for a ball thrown into dead-ball territory) assumes that the throw is originating from one of two legal positions, the wind-up or set position. If the pitcher is not in one of the two legal positions (i.e. after faking toward 3rd), the location of his pivot foot is immaterial. He's not a pitcher any more.

Just an opinion.

I'd be curious to see some other opinions.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN