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Originally Posted by CoachJM
WWTB,
My assertion that the umpire should call the pitch a ball or strike based on where it would have been absent the contact with the batter in the event the pitch hits the batter before reaching the strike zone is based on the following statement from J/R (Chapter 7 - One Base Awards, (1) The batter is hit-by-pitch (HBP) - my emphasis):
So, if a pitcher throws a pitch "right down the middle" and the batter, who is standing forward in the box, reaches out his hand and is hit by the pitch just before it enters the heart of the strike zone, are you going to call the pitch a ball or a strike? It seems entirely consistent with the spirit and intent of the rules to call such a pitch a strike. What do you think?
JM
P.S. I can't find anything in the JEA, MLBUM, or BRD that addresses the situation.
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Coach,
Three weeks ago, in Portland, Jim Evans agreed with your position. There are times a batter is hit by pitch prior to the ball reaching that plate, yet the pitch must still be determined a ball or a strike. Evan, in reply to a student who insisted such a pitch can't be called either since it didn't reach the plate, responded: "You can't have such a pitch remain uncalled. The umpire must use his judgment as to whether the pitch would have been a strike or a ball if it hadn't hit the batter. This is why you get the big bucks."