Quote:
Originally posted by UMP25
Quote:
Originally posted by nickrego
The R2 did not Intentionally let the ball hit him, so there was NO Interference.
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Yes, there WAS interference, whether R2 intentionally let the ball hit him or whether it accidentally hit him. It still is interference. You're thinking that interference has to be some sort of intentional act. While that can occur in many situations, of course, I submit to you that most interferences are unintentional; yet they're still interferences nonetheless.
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It's not listed specifically as Interference in the FED book, 6-4-2k. But it has been quoted here that if it was intentional, consider it Interference, and call the second out if it prevented a double play. Although, you can weave your way through and end up at 8-4-2g.
Awe heck, call everybody out, throw everybody out, and let's go home !