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officialtony,
I didn't forget about any part of the post. I said how can you assume the pitch wasn't in the zone when the batter intentionally let the ball hit him. You say it "probably" wasn't in the zone. Where do you come up with this? It is far more likely that if the pitch looks to the PU like it is a strike, then the pitch was in the strike zone. Different scenarios have been given. Which one were you talking about, yours, or the original?
If a batter intentionally lets the ball strike him, he's not getting first base unless he already had a 3-ball count, and the pitch was not a strike.
I don't think we disagree here, I was expanding on your point is all.
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25
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