Quote:
Originally posted by mcrowder
I believe what he is doing is tackling F3 so that he cannot make the catch. Isn't that what we're talking about?
I'll spell it out again, since there have been several side-what-ifs, this one included.
Bases loaded, no outs. R1 is sprinting home and crosses the plate while the ball is sky high. R2 is rounding third. F3 is camped under the ball, near the dugout. BR, seeing that there will be an easy double or even triple play if the ball is caught, tackles F3.
Ruling (by rule): R1 scores, R2 out, BR out.
So, simply because the wordsmiths around here refuse to acknowledge that the ball is in fact foul (yes, I know, it's not yet technically foul - it's nothing while still in the air and in the ballpark), R1 is allowed to score?
|
First, while I did engage some of the what ifs earlier in this thread, my recent postings in this thread have to do with the scenario as presented in the question. Your scenario is not a possibility within what we are told in the question.
Second, it is most definitely NOT a wordsmithing issue about the fair status of the ball. It is a sequence of events issue. If the ball goes dead BEFORE the batted ball can become foul, what happens to it after that is moot. It is neither fair nor foul - it is dead because of interference. But, up until it became dead due to interference, it was a live ball and runners could advance subject to yadda yadda. Since the dead ball happened AFTER R1 crosed home and BEFORE the ball may or may not have become foul, then R1 is not required to return due to a foul ball.
Now, in your scenario, if you wanted to apply the flagrant misconduct case play, I would have no objection.