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SRW - your ruling is right, by the book (and by the test).
However, I believe that if the umpire felt that the interference was intentional for the express purpose of scoring that run (and the umpire was SURE of it, and had great big cohones), he could rule R1 out and place R2 at 2nd, under the umbrella of not allowing the offending team from benefitting from a transgression (rule 10 dot something if memory serves).
But if you were making such a ruling, you'd better be very clear which rule you were using, because if this went to protest, and your ruling was the "normal" interference rule, you would be overturned.
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson
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