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Windy:
Please explain how this is "batters interference" in the original play?
If it's interference at all, it would have to be runners interference where intent is required to interfere with a thrown ball. It's really not that complicated. I'm not saying this couldn't be interference. That would depend on judgment as to whether or not there was intent. However, to say intent is not required, which is what your original contention was is incorrect.
Professional Interpretation: A batter has completed his time at-bat anytime he hits a fair ball, or he hits a foul ball that is caught in flight for an out. He also is considered to have completed his time at-bat anytime he is declared out under any provision of Rules 6.05,6.06, and 6.07. In addition, a batter is considered to have legally completed his time at-bat anytime he is awarded first base under the provisions of Rule 6.08, or he becomes a runner under the provisions of 6.09.
Tim.
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