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Old Tue Feb 14, 2006, 11:15pm
Rick Durkee Rick Durkee is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: Winchester, NH
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Rick, just to add a little bit about the "disposal" part of your question. The reason it doesn't matter whether the ball is at the inbounder's disposal is that the error is correctable up until the ball becomes live following the first dead ball after the clock has properly started. So even if the ball becomes live by handing it to the inbounder, the clock has not properly started, so the error is correctable.

To make it even more extreme, suppose your situation happened, the ball was handed to the inbounder, and a technical foul was called on Coach B for arguing the call. A6 shoots two for the T and then the ball is handed to A2 for the throw-in at midcourt. Before the ball is touched inbounds, B3 is called for an intentional foul. A3 goes to shoot two and the ball is handed to A2 for the throw-in. NOW, the table realizes that B1's rebounding foul should've resulted in a 1-and-1. Believe it or not, it's still correctable, since the clock never started. Unsubstitute A1 and shoot the 1-and-1.

Huh. Now, since there's been no change in possession during this whole sequence, do we line up and shoot 'em as we normally would? Or clear the lane and give Team A the throw-in for the intentional?
Thanks, Chuck! I appreciate the effort. I was actually pretty okay with the correctable error stuff. I just couldn't figure out the substitute stuff. I couldn't figure if there was some event, like the ball becoming live, the clock starting, or the sub for the correct shooter needing to shoot his own free throws, that would prevent the correct shooter from re-entering the game. Nevada pointed me (while politely chastising me ) to the Fed interp that gave me my answer.

I didn't anticipate it leading us to another ambiguous situation. Jeesh!
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