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Old Mon Jan 09, 2006, 06:03pm
bob jenkins bob jenkins is offline
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,136
Quote:
Originally posted by phillips.alex
i've got a question:

Is the run scoring before "the play" as jenkins describes it? I think many coaches would offer up the idea that these are two seperate plays, as the runner reached home before the ball got there. But i'm not really sure.
Read the FED definition of "PLAY" -- it's something like "a unit of action that begins when F1 has the ball on the rubber and ends when F1 again has the ball"

So, in FED it's clear that this is all one play.

It's not as clearly defined in the other codes, but the ruling is the same.
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