Rule 9-1-4: "The free thrower shall not fake a try, nor shall any player in a marked lane space fake to cause an opponent to violate."
Situation: A1 has the ball to attempt a FT. A2, in a marked lane space fakes a move into the lane in an attempt to cause B1 in the adjacent space to violate. No member of Team B violates.
Question: Do you penalize the fake, even tho nobody fell for it? Or do you only penalize the fake if it actually causes an opponent to violate?
It seems to me that the wording of the rule is ambiguous: "to cause an opponent to violate". It can be read to mean that he fakes "in an attempt to cause an opponent to violate"; or it could be read to mean that his fake "actually causes an opponent to violate".
What are your thoughts? I argued that it means the latter; that is, you don't penalize it unless it actually causes a violation. But my friend insisted that you penalize any fake. He called our board interpreter, who agrees with him. I guess I can live with that, but I'm not convinced they're right.
[If A1 is at the line and B1 fakes, then you could have disconcertion; but that's totally different from what I'm asking.]
Chuck
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