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Originally posted by ChuckElias
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Originally posted by Dan_ref
You have decided to misread it to re-define when the team control ends on the throw-in.
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AAAAUUUUURRRRRGGGGGHHHHHH!!!!!!! No. That's not what I'm saying at all. And I've already said a couple of times that I'm not saying that. We all know that team control begins when the ball is at the disposal of the inbounding team. And it continues until the opponent secures control or until the ball becomes dead or until a try or tap is released. I get it.
The rule says "A team in control of the ball for a throw-in adjacent to a front-court boundary line may not be called for a three-second violation."
You stop reading at "in control of the ball". My point is that if all they cared about was team control, which is how you're reading it, then why did they include the phrase "for a throw-in"?
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No, that is exactly how I am NOT reading it. They care about team control during the throw-in. They care about it then because that is exactly when the 3 second rule is suspended.
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Why not just say "A team in control of the ball may not be called for a 3-second violation before the throw-in has ended"? That's what you're claiming the rule says -- and what I readily grant is what the rule should say -- so why did they use the phrase "in control for a throw-in"? Could it possibly mean "while the inbounder is holding the ball"?
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No, it could not. Just as it could not possibly mean "while the inbounder has not lifted his left foot". I say that because "in control for a throw-in" is equivalent to "before the throw-in has ended". Why are they equivalent? Because team control for the throw-in ends exactly when the throw-in ends.
Neither of these is in any way equivalent to "while the inbounder is holding the ball".