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Old Thu Oct 13, 2005, 01:15am
BigUmp56 BigUmp56 is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by SanDiegoSteve
Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven
If the ruling had been that the ball was caught cleanly, what would Eddings have done differently on that play, if anything?

Should the umpire tell or signal to the BR that he is out if he is out? Seems like a straightforward question, but what if there had been a man on first there (and less than two outs)? Gets a lot more complicated. Telling him he's out there could give a real advantage to a catcher who doesn't know the rules who might otherwise make a bad decision that lets the runner advance a base.

Seems like third dropped strike scenarios can get really tricky.
If there is a runner at first, and less than 2 out, I will say "the batter's out" loud and clear, that way the runner stops running, the runner at first doesn't think he is forced to run, and a whole world of crap is avoided. There is nothing wrong with calling an out when there is an out.

Steve,

If first base is occupied with less than two outs, the runner isn't forced to vacate on a dropped or uncaught third strike. The batter is out regardless as to whether or not F2 caught the pitch cleanly on strike three.

R1 would only be forced to advance if there were two outs.

For protocol and courtesy purposes, it is best to only verbalize the out call on a swinging strike three loud enough for F1 and B1 to hear you.


Tim.
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