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Old Fri Oct 07, 2005, 11:07pm
assignmentmaker assignmentmaker is offline
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Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 508
Why do you presume that what's said

Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Why is a kick any different than B1 deflecting the ball OOB with his/her hand?

B1 is not gaining an advantage, they played good defense or A1 made a poor throw-in pass, but in either case neither A1 nor B1 did anything to keep or lose the right to the arrow.
A kick is different because it is, in itself, illegal. a deflection isn't. See the difference?
Nope, with regards to this rule, there's no difference.

Again, if the throw-in rule said "The throw-in ends when the ball is LEGALLY touched inbounds," the situation would be different. But it doesn't.
Why do you presume that what's said re: the termination of the throw-in should be acted on first when 2 things happen at once? If you take the kick as coming first, that's it, the ball's dead, and the touch to end the throw-in never happened. Are you suggesting there's something in the rules that tells you to act on the termination of throw-in first?
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