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A had the opportunity to make and complete a throw-in. B1 made a heck of a defensive play to block the ball, but he did it with his foot, which cause B to violate. Where does it say you have to benefit form an AP throw-in? If B1 intercepts the throw-in and scores a layup did A benefit? No. Was it a legal throw-in? Yes.
Is it really "a heck of defensive play" if it's an illegal defensive play? A kick is a violation, so I can't agree that it's a great defensive play and definitely not one that should be rewarded.
I do agree that A had the "opportunity" to complete the throw-in. But, that throw-in opportunity was never completed because of an illegal act by B.
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