[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by JJ

I got two phone calls this morning asking for rulings on similar situations, and it brought to mind those kinds of plays that surface in the discussion circles every so often. I'll present the case that was presented to me, and please feel free to comment on this and/or add similar cases that stick in your mind -

R2, R3, 1 out, fly ball to the outfield. R3 tags and legally scores, but R2 leaves too soon. Does the run count?

Of course we as intelligent, well-informed and experienced umpires know this is a time play, NOT a force play. We know that, right? So it comes down to if and how the play is appealed, and on what level of ball it occurs. And now, with the change in the FED rule, we have more to think about for 2002.

I enjoy talking about things like this, and even though some answers SEEM obvious I still get calls from "experienced" umpires who either have forgotten or really don't know. Unfortunately, if they "guess" wrong when they give their ruling on the field, problems arise because coaches accept their word as gospel because they ARE "experienced" umpires.

Post your comments and other situations you've run into.

JJ, the trouble that most coaches have is when is B1 allowed to run to first on a dropped thrid strike.

Here's the sitch: 1 out r1

B1 K's but ball gets by F2 - I signal the batter's out! The batter's out.

Now there are 2 out and r1

B1 K's and again ball gets by F2. This time B1 heads for dugout. I am saying nothing at this point and when it's apparent that B1 is making no attempt to advance I ring up the out.

The coach comes out and says hey Blue you told me B1 couldn't run with first base occupied - what gives. I say coach in the first situation there was only one out, in this situation, there were 2 out.

From my experience, it seems as though this rule is confusing to most coaches, especially when the kids graduate from LL and are now playing real baseball.

Pete Booth