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kdf5 - I had enforced the IDF from K-45 to K-40.
Bob M. - But if, without the foul, you would give A/K the ball with a 1-10 after the touched kick, would you somewhat equate that to a change of possession as the pass after the touching had no effect on the down changing or who got the ball?
Understandibly somewhat different but after an interception, B throws an IFP, would you take away the change of possession and give the ball back to A? I wouldn't.
I know these are exactly the same plays but fouls after a change in possession don't negate the change. In this play there was no actual change of possession but it is treated that way in that K may retain possession of the ball and get a new series of downs without reaching the line to gain.
So my point is that K/A was awarded a new series, through the touching, with clean hands and then fouled. I don't see the reason to take the new series away from them on this obscure, probably never happen in my lifetime, play.
I just don't see that the repeat of the down which the penalty specifies overrides the new series awarding by the touching. Just because penalties specify the repeating of a down or loss of down does not mean we are always able to enforce it.
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