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Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
1)The arrow is only set when the ball is at the disposal of the inbounder if the violation on the opening jump occurred before a player gained control-as per R4-3-3(a). In this case, the violation and player control were simultaneous.
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But wasn't this the point of changing the interpretation a few years ago. If the ball was caught by a jumper, we used to give the ball
and the arrow to the other team b/c control came before the violation. Now, in essence, we're saying that the jumper never had control of the ball before the violation. So wouldn't that also apply to my test question?
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That means that it now becomes an AP violation and R6-4-4 becomes the applicable rule. Iow, the correct answer is "yes".
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I'm honestly not acting dumb, but what does the underlined part mean? How can it be an AP violation when the AP procedure has not yet been established?