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I have been reading this one with great interest, and researching every source for the definitive answer, and can't find. I can't see a reason for ruling interference on a foul ground ball. That position seems supported by J/R. After that I can't see ruling interference on a ball that then rolls fair, after the contact. On a ball that is rolling foul, that must roll fair for there to be a fair ball, there will be no play on anyone, including BR or R3, at the time the ball rolled fair, regardless of whether there was any contact between fielder and BR.
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