View Single Post
  #11 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jul 21, 2005, 06:22pm
GarthB GarthB is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Spokane, WA
Posts: 4,222
Quote:
Originally posted by Dave Hensley
Could the balk call have been for throwing to an unoccupied base, with PU giving the pitcher no exemption based on "for the purpose of making the play" because the runner was not legitimately advancing, but had instead only feinted a steal?
That's the only possible reason, although one could make an esoteric argument that the base WAS occupied, by the batter.

Apparently he was convinced by the other umpires that no balk was committed, for whatever reason.
__________________
GB
Reply With Quote