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Old Wed Jul 20, 2005, 12:26am
rainmaker rainmaker is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:
Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:
Originally posted by mick
Quote:
Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:
Originally posted by Back In The Saddle
...everyone has said they'd give the ball back to A. We only differ in the reasoning we'd apply to support our decision.
A significant minority (namely Jurassic and me!) have said that while we may not like the rule, we're going to give the ball to B, because that's the way we're supposed to do it. We have to enforce all the rules, even the ones we don't like.
Uh, no, Jewel.
Both of you did not say that.
mick
Okay, I give. What did we say?
JR is giving the ball back to A, you are all by your lonesome on this one.
Here's a direct quote from JR

"My position is legitimate(in my mind).....but wrong by rule.

You're right, Juulie; imo the only options by rule are a foul on B1 or a B throw-in. "

Also, I think Camron's on my side, too.

So, that makes three of us, not just one.

Frankly, I can't believe y'all are seriously giving the ball to A. If A is the last one to touch the ball, what else needs to be said? The book clearly states that the definition of "causes the ball to be oob" is "the last to touch." How could you possibly go against that? Since when to we deliberately and with malice aforethought contravene clear legal language to suit our own ideas of "common sense"? Seriously, I don't get it.

If B shoves the ball out of bounds, and A reaches for it, and just barely tips it, then it was really B that caused the ball to go out, even though A was the last to touch. How is that any different from the play under discussion?
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