[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by Rich Ives

What's the history and/or rationale for:

8.05 If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_
d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play;


With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

Rich in the aforementioned, F1 does not have the luxory of feinting a throw to first base, therefore, as long as he does not hesitate as the rule states, he is allowed to throw to second base.

EXAMPLES:

(1) Runners on first and second, pitcher in set position. Runner breaks for third base and pitcher throws to third base. Ruling: Legal play.

(2) Runners on first and second, pitcher in set position. Runner bluffs going to third base and pitcher throws to third base. However, runner did not go. Ruling: Balk, pursuant to Official Baseball Rule 8.05(d).

In the aforementioned examples F1 DOES have the Luxory of feinting towards second or third base, therefore, if R2 does bluff to third base, F1 does not need to make a complete throw, He can feint the runner back to the base.

I do not know if that was the rationale of the rule-makers but it makes since. In one instance F1 cannot feint to first base, so the rule-makers added "without hesitating toward first, and throw to second".

In examples 2/3 F1 can Feint to either second or third base.

Actuality: Pitcher's are taught or should be taught to disengage the pitcher's plate legally when they are set and see the runners going or his teamates tell him the runners are running. By doing that F1 can pretty much do whatever he wants.

Pete Booth