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Old Thu Jun 30, 2005, 08:19am
Dave Hensley Dave Hensley is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by aevans410
Maybe the confusion lies in how the interpretation is worded.

b) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

This statement may be the confusing one. It says nothing about R1 bluffing towards 2B. Maybe its just an accidental ommission in the MLBUM.

[Edited by aevans410 on Jun 30th, 2005 at 08:42 AM]
What the statement should say is:

b) With a runner on first base attempting to steal second base, the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

Without the phrase I've added, the statement implies that a throw to unoccupied 2B would be legal if the pitcher makes a complete turn without hesitating toward first, and throws to second.
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