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Old Tue Jun 28, 2005, 05:00pm
Jurassic Referee Jurassic Referee is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally posted by regas14

(1)If everyone in the gym knows they are going to purposely (notice the use of the word purposely instead of intentionally) foul then the only differentiation between an intential foul and a non-intentional foul is a token swipe at the ball?

(2)I think we would all recognize a foul made with the primary intent to hurt/punish the opposing player as an intentional foul.

(3)We all would also recognize a run-of-the-mill foul as being just a standard foul. In between is a lot of gray area for me.

Yeah, I think that you don't have a clue what an intentional foul really is. And you're thinking waaaaaay too much for someone who has never actually officiated a game in their life.The best way to find out about something is to usually to read the appropriate rule. In this case, that would be FED R4-19-3. Note the part of R4-19-3 that says the act may or may NOT be premeditated and that it ISN'T based the severity of the contact. You very obviously do NOT know the different foul definitions.

I had to edit and go back and comment on the points above because they are so badly wrong.

(1)We punish the act as per the definition of an intentional foul. What everyone in the gym thinks or "knows" isn't relevant to the call.
(2)Trying to hurt/punish an opponent is a FLAGRANT foul. Completely different animal, and defined as such in the rules.
(3)A run of the mill foul can STILL be an intentional foul, depending on how and when it is committed.

Lah me!

[Edited by Jurassic Referee on Jun 28th, 2005 at 06:11 PM]
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