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Old Thu Jun 23, 2005, 10:58pm
Matthew F Matthew F is offline
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Join Date: May 2005
Posts: 111
Quote:
Originally posted by aevans410
This is why the quality of posting on this board is going down. You have been told by at least 4 different posters on why this isn't a balk but you parse the rules to make your interpretation "correct".

Bottom line :

Pitcher is not required to throw to second under any code, period. Therefore, he can't balk by throwing the ball over the fielder covering 2B.

Rather than accept the ruling that a few of our more knowledgeable members have given you, you continue to argue.

Well, excuse me. If you remember not so long ago, at least a dozen different posters (including myself) believed bringing your leg staight up and stepping back was properly disengaging the rubber. As it turns out, we were wrong even though we had more umpires who thought it wasn't a balk. So shear numbers on one side of a discussion don't mean squat. That's why I'm asking these questions.

I find more in the rules and rules interpretations that would imply that a pickoff attempt (The pitcher steps with his non-pivot foot towards 2B [occupied] while in contact with the rubber) needs to be towards an occupied base (or unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play).

99 BRD (only BRD I could find - lots of stuff boxed up since I moved)

PITCHER:STEPS:TOWARD BASE:FIELDER PLAYING OFF BAG
PRO: The pitcher when throwing or making a legal feint while touching the rubber must step "directly toward a base before throwing TO THAT BASE." (BRD emphasis) Penalty:balk. (8.05c Pen)

ALSO: OFF INTERP 140-356: The violation (throwing to a fielder instead of a base) can only occur on a throw to first; the pitcher may throw to the fielder at second and third, regardless of where he is stationed. (NAPBL 6.4a)


Why do the offical interpretations implicitly say it's not considered "not throwing directly to a base" if F1 throws to a fielder in the vicinity of 2B or 3B, if it was meant for F1 to throw the ball anywhere? Why restrict the interpretation to fielders at 2B and 3B? Heck, why not just say F1 has carte blanc and can throw to any position he feels like!!!

I was brought up using FED rules, so I'll admit I might be a little thick grasping the OBR interpretation. That's one of the reason I'm here - to get better (balks are one of my weak points, if you haven't noticed). Thanks for your patience.
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