[bossman72]

Had this happen in a game.

R2. Pitcher in the stretch taking signs. Coach says to "step off." Pitcher steps off by bringing his free foot back behind the rubber towards second. I call nothing.

Now, later in the inning, there was just R1. Pitcher did the same move. I called balk. When coach asked for an explanation and why i didn't call anything the first time, i told him that since there was a runner at second the first time, that step was considered a fake to second. Since he did it with second unoccupied, it's a fake to an unoccupied base and a balk.

So, 2 questions for ya:

1) Was my ruling right in the story above?

2) Is the pitcher required to legally disengage with the pivot foot even though he hasn't come set yet?

Please note any FED/OBR difference.

Thanks!

-Bossman