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Since A56 has not come back inbounds he doesn't fit the "illegal participation" definition for that foul. Like a couple of previous posters, I thought about the "helping the runner" aspect, and from an intent standpoint, I think that applies. What bothers me is that I think this play also gets to the intent of the illegal participation foul, in that the "player" (albeit still out of bounds), "participated" in the play. A56 certainly "participated" in the play.
Question: What's the reason that "players" are excluded in the "out of bounds" definition in 2-28-1? I can see why game officials are excluded.
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kentref
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