[ysong]

Originally posted by rainmaker

If a foot isn't allowed to be lifted before it's established as the pivot foot, no one can move anywhere when they have the ball! As long as the player is dribbling, either foot can move anywhere. Neither foot is the pivot foot, but that doesn't matter because a pivot foot isn't necessary. If a player steps OR jumps (doesn't matter which) and then ends the dribble, the next foot to hit is the pivot foot. What either foot did before that is irrelevant. Now that a pivot foot is established, there are rules about what can happen. But before that pivot foot touches down, it doesn't matter what it does, because pivot foot rules don't matter until the dribble is ended.

Thanks, rainmaker. You are absolutely right, travel rule does not apply when no dribbling is going on. (I know this much at least. )

But in the context of my question, the player is not dribbling. He is holding the ball (i.e, after a player catches the ball. To be more specific, he catches the ball when he is in mid air).

As Bob points out, my problem is to claim pivot foot can not be lifted before it becomes a pivot foot. The only reason I get this "unique" idea is that this move is not explicitly listed as allowed move thus I deem it is illegal.

(It is right, I may be too strict into the wording. The harder I try to get myself out of a confusion, the deeper I am in it.)

My confusion originates from the fact that most people believe 43-2-a(2) can also be a "jump" while for me it "obviously" sounds like a "step":

when the rule says "the player lands" "On one foot followed by the other", I can only picture one action (for there is only one verb), player "lands", I can not picture a "jump" between two landings, one by each foot.

Based on the style of the rule's wording, one would think it would have to be worded like "(the player lands) On one foot, the player may jump off that foot and land on the other foot", if the rule 43-2-a(2) allows this jump. it may even have to list this jump as 43-2-a(4), would you think?

I also wonder how many refs also believe 43-2-a(2) is a "step" rather than a "jump", 1%? 50%? 75%?

I think right now I have to rely on "faith" on this one, like, "It can also be a jump. Period. That is how I understand it or what I have been told anyway".

Thanks for your help.