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In reading the original sitch over and over again, I'm not sure why we aren't considering that this might be a false double foul? Doesn't it fall under that part of the definition that says, "at least one of the attributes of a double foul is absent." If A1 was distrespectfully addressing B1, and they happen at the same time, why is this simultaneous instead of double? If one is personal and one is technical, isn't this "one of the attributes of a double foul" being absent?
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