[Lapopez]

Originally posted by largeone59
The ruling to make the starting pitcher (who pitched 7 inn, then took warm ups before the 8th, then coach wanted him to switch with the SS and have the SS pitch) i made was based on 3.08 (a) (1) in OBR.

"3.08
(a) If no announcement of a substitution is made, the substitute shall be considered as having entered the game when_ (1) If a pitcher, he takes his place on the pitcher's plate;"


This same situation was also writtine in an RBS article i read on amateurumpire.com about advice on what to do between innings:

"One thing you particularly want to observe is the pitching mound. During the inning change, occasionally another fielder, say "Jimmy," the Senators' left fielder, is jogging past the mound and he will see the ball laying there where the other team's catcher tossed it when the last half inning ended. Jimmy has been wanting to pitch but the coach hasn't let him try yet. So just for fun, Jimmy picks up the ball, steps on the rubber and tells "Charlie," the catcher to catch one pitch for him. Charlie's got nothing to do since, "Elvis," the real pitcher, still hasn't come out onto the field. So Charlie squats behind home plate and Jimmy lets one fly. After Jimmy's "pitch," he turns and resumes his jog out to left field.

Jimmy has just legally become the Senators' next pitcher. Rule 3.08 (a) (1). Not only does Jimmy have to face at least one batter, but Elvis can no longer return to the position of pitcher in this game."


That's where i got the ruling from. But really, how loosely do you guys inforce this rule?

I'm sure someone will advise on "preventative umpiring" to help with your question. My question has to do with the rule, 3.08(a)(1). Further down, in 3.08(a)(3), there is a caveat, "...and play commences." I would think this would apply to each of the four situations in 3.08. Does a player become a substitute for the pitcher just because he threw a pitch to the catcher between innings when the ball wasn't even live?