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Originally posted by HM1 Hammonds
R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B, R3 on 1B - less than 2 outs.
R3 takes off on the pitch and goes to 2B while F2 returns ball to F1.
We now have R2 on 2B with R3 also on 2B with the ball in the circle.
LBR not in effect because no runners are off a base. True or False?
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Of course, it is in effect. If it wasn't, we wouldn't be having this discussion.
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The only way to resolve this is for the defense to make a play at 2B and tag R1. True or False?
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No, the defense has the option to make no play.
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8.7T(1) When a runner is legitimately off a base after a pitch or as a result of a batter completing a turn at bat, and while the pitcher has control of the ball within an eight foot radius of the pitchers plate, the runner may stop once, but then must immediately return to the base or attempt to advance to the next base.
8.3B When a runner or batter-runner acquires the right to a base by touching it before being put out, the runner or batter-runner is entitled to hold the base until legally touching the next base in order or is forced to vacate it for a suceeding runner.
In this instance, the B-R did not acquire the right to 2B.
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Awfully hard for there to be a BR when the ball was not put into play.
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She could not steal 2B as it was occupied so she was obligated to return to 1B. 8.7T(2)does say that the runner must immediately return to the base or attempt to advance to the next base. The LBR is in effect since she off 1B. I may have used the term "entitled" incorrectly in this case. My apologies to all.
Can the R3 legally occupy 2B? She can't "occupy" 2B because she was not forced to vacate 1B. R2 is not "forced" to vacate 2B. Seems to me that if R3 does not make an "immediate" move to return to 1B then that runner can be called out.
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If R3 makes a move to return to 1B, then she would be out in accordance with the LBR.
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How can I get a copy of the ASA casebook? I would like to read through it. What rules support calling time and returning R3 to 1B?
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See post above.